Let's say a couple were to enter into some contract with a woman to maybe use the male sperm and the woman's eggs in order to get a baby, and the baby then, in a sense, would be contracted, maybe money would exchange.

Therefore, the baby is bought and paid for, and is this UPB? In other words, can a couple pay another woman to conceive and carry a child, and then the custody of the child would be transferred to the new couple, and is this UPB? Now, of course, there's no force that is being deployed in the contract, right? So everybody is voluntarily putting themselves in the contract. And the argument is, and I understand the perspective, and I obviously really respect the question, but the baby is not consenting. The baby is not consenting to the contract. Now, of course, I've made this case before, but it's been a long time ago. Is a contract valid if you can't consent at the time, but you do consent later?

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